Math, asked by Nandanajay, 1 year ago

disprove that a^2>b^2 for all a>b by finding a suitable counter example​

Answers

Answered by brunoconti
0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

BRAINLIEST BRAINLIEST BRAINLIEST

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Answered by MaheswariS
0

Answer:

The given inequality does not hold for negative real numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

The inequality a^2>b^2 for all a>b holds only for positive real numbers but it does not hold for negative real numbers

For example,

5 > 4 implies\:5^2>4^2

-4 > -5 does not imply\:(-4)^2>(-5)^2

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