Math, asked by harshitha5912, 10 months ago

divide 36 into two parts in such a way that 1 by 5 of 1 part is equal to two equal to 1 by 7 of the other​

Answers

Answered by anindyaadhikari13
4

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this will help you...Please mark this answer as the brainliest..

Attachments:
Similar questions