Divide 51 into two parts such that their product is 378......................
Answers
Answered by
112
let one number be 'x'
therefore, other number will be 51-x
(x) (51-x)=378
51x- x^{2} =378
taking 51x - x^{2} onthe right side we get
x^{2} - 51x + 378=0
x^{2} -42x - 9x +378 =0
x(x-42) -9(x-42)=0
(x-42)(x-9)=0
x-42=0 x-9=0
x=42 x=9
therefore x can be 42,9
if one number is 42, then the other numberis 9
therefore, other number will be 51-x
(x) (51-x)=378
51x- x^{2} =378
taking 51x - x^{2} onthe right side we get
x^{2} - 51x + 378=0
x^{2} -42x - 9x +378 =0
x(x-42) -9(x-42)=0
(x-42)(x-9)=0
x-42=0 x-9=0
x=42 x=9
therefore x can be 42,9
if one number is 42, then the other numberis 9
Answered by
89
Let one part be y.
Then the other part will be 51-y.
According to the question,
y*(51-y)=378
51y-y²=378
y²-51y+378=0
y²-42y-9y+378=0
y(y-42)-9(y-42)=0
(y-42)(y-9)=0
y=9,42
Therefore we must divide 51 into 42 and 9.
Then the other part will be 51-y.
According to the question,
y*(51-y)=378
51y-y²=378
y²-51y+378=0
y²-42y-9y+378=0
y(y-42)-9(y-42)=0
(y-42)(y-9)=0
y=9,42
Therefore we must divide 51 into 42 and 9.
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