Math, asked by sumitkumar8447329718, 10 months ago

divide 84 into two parts such that 1/3 of one parts is equal to 1/4 of the other parts

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
57

\huge\underline\green{\sf Answer}

\large{\boxed{\sf Other\:parts\:are\:36\:and\:48}}

\huge\underline\green{\sf Solution}

Let one part be x.

Another part = 84-x

Now,  

As per the question  

\large\implies{\sf {\frac{1}{3}} \times x = {\frac{1}{4}} \times (84-x)}

\large\implies{\sf {\frac{x}{3}} \times 4 = 84-x}

\large\implies{\sf 4x = 3(84-x)}

\large\implies{\sf 7x = 84 \times 3}

\large\implies{\sf x = 12 \times 3 = 36}

So, The two parts will be :-

36 and \large{\sf 84-36\:i.e.\:48}

\large\red{\boxed{\sf Other\:Parts\:Are\:36\:and48}}

Answered by Anonymous
10

Hello Mate:

Solution is here

Let one part be X

Another part =84-X

Now, A.T.Q.

1/3× X = 1/4 × (84-X)

X/3× 4 = 84-X

4X = 3(84-X)

7X = 84×3

X=12×3 = 36

So the two parts will be 36 and 84-36 i.e. 48

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