Math, asked by simontirkey970, 6 hours ago

Divide number 40 in such a way that the 1by 5 th part of the first number is equal to the 1 by 3 rd part of the second number​

Answers

Answered by muskangoel01
0

Step-by-step explanation:

40 can be divided as 25 and 15

such that 1/5th of 25 is equal to 1/3 rd of 15

ie 5=5

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Answered by rk4032128
1

Step-by-step explanation:

See in image

Answer is 15 and 25

For more information see in image

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