Math, asked by annchristf, 7 months ago

divide the integer 40 by -1​

Answers

Answered by yadavmuskan7481
0

Answer:

-40

Step-by-step explanation:

whenever any positive no. is divided by negative no. negative sign is shifted to numerator and I think you know that there is no use of 1 in denominator if we remove itthere is no change in answer hence -40 is answer.

hope you understand

Previous Question
Next Question
Similar questions
English, 3 months ago
How does gangu come to be working in the narrator's house?
Computer Science, 3 months ago
The timeline appears only when you have which duration in the settings dialog of the project. a) Zero b) one c) 3 d) non zero​...
Social Sciences, 3 months ago
Who was the ruler of Russia and its empire in 1914?​
Math, 7 months ago
construct a circle of radius 4.2 cm and draw a radius ,a diameter,and a chord.​
Hindi, 7 months ago
राम पहता है। । 1-in sans​...
Math, 11 months ago
how to do additive inverse and multiplicative inverse​...
Science, 11 months ago
Need, Obsevation and conclusion about commonly used gadgets or devices of newton's laws of motion...
Math, 11 months ago
find the mean of :- 1) 2,10,9,9,5,2,3,7,11 ​...