Do you consider that the rise of british power in india, primarily owes to the decline of mughal power or british naval and trade supremacy?
Answers
Answer:
In 1700, the Indian sub-continent was largely unified under the powerful Mughal dynasty. This Muslim dynasty had conquered much of South Asia and brought a degree of peace and prosperity to the land. They were efficient rulers, great patrons of the arts and their huge army overawed any opposition.[6] However, by 1750, the Mughal Empire was in decline. Even at the height of their power, they were unable to directly administer their territories and they often delegated authority to appointees. These local rulers were to supply soldiers and equipment to the Mughal army and pay taxes. Over time, these local leaders became increasingly powerful and became independent of the Mughal Court. This weakened the Mughal Empire. The dynasty had also been undermined by the invasion of the Empire by an Afghan warlord who even sacked Delhi, the capital if the Empire.
Explanation:
The last truly effective emperor was Aurangzeb. He had been Islamic fundamentalist and he had departed from the traditionally tolerant policies of the Mughals and this led to much resentment among the majority Hindus. This was to spark a series of Hindu revolts by groups such as the Marathas and further weakened the dynasty. Furthermore, he had engaged in unceasing war, as he tried to conquer the few remaining areas on the subcontinent that were not directly controlled by the Mughals. The cost of his wars was ruinous and they left the Mughal Empire almost bankrupt. By 1750, much of Indian only paid nominal obedience to the Mughal Empire and the Emperor was only a figurehead in Delhi. In reality, power was now in the hands of a multitude of Muslim and Hindi local rulers, known as Rajahs or Sultans. India was politically fragmented by the time that the British started to expand in India and this greatly facilitated their growing influence in the sub-continent If Britain had been faced with a strong government, it is highly unlikely that they would have been able to establish their empire in South Asia.
Answer:yes
Explanation:
Yes ..... Because if aurangzeb would have been there he would have never allowed all the advantageous rights being given to the British...