Question

_ _ _ _ _ _ Does x * y =x * z imply y = z? why?

Answer 1

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

In the given question,

We have been provided that,

$x\times y = x\times z$

So,

On cancelling the common terms from the both sides which is 'x'.

We can see that we are left with

y = z

So,

$x\times y = x\times z$

also implies that y = z.

Because, multiplying an equation in the both sides, LHS and RHS, by the same term doesn't alter the equation.

Hence, proved.