Math, asked by jhumap2015, 9 months ago

e^iπ +1 =0 .
This looks too easy if we use the euler's theorm, but things change when we don't.​

Answers

Answered by uk77919
1

Answer:

I agree with you regarding the level of the class being taught. We know the SQUARE of the SQRT(-1) is equal to -1. We also know SQRT (-1) * SQRT (-1) = -1 and not SQRT (-1 * -1) = 1. This is not about mathematical tricks and order of operations. It about an amazing identity that represents the basis for solving many practical problems in structural dynamics, seepage, etc. I am just curious if there is an explanation for why it works other than the Euler mathematical proof. Thanks.

Answered by jyotigupta64
7

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it hlps u plz mrk......

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