Social Sciences, asked by Arshrastogi4213, 6 months ago

Eexplains the reasonfont the polarization of industrially developed countries

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Answered by Kushalsai26
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There is increasing evidence that labor markets in developed countries are polarizing or hollowing out. On the one hand, the share of employment in high-skilled, high-paying occupations (managers, professionals, and technicians) and low-skilled, low-paying occupations (elementary, service, and sales workers) is growing. On the other hand, the share of employment in middle-skilled, middle-paying occupations (clerks, plant, and machine operators) is being squeezed. There is ample evidence of polarization in the United States (see Acemoglu and Autor, 2011; Autor and Dorn, 2013; and  Autor (2014) for a less technical discussion), and also in Western Europe (Goos, Manning, and Salomons, 2014). Harrigan, Reshef, and Toubal (2016), more recently, document the same phenomenon in France, using firm-level data.

In the World Development Report 2016 “Digital Dividends”, we show, for the first time, that the labor market is also hollowing out in developing countries (Figure 1). Since 1995, the average decline in the share of routine employment has been 0.39 percentage points a year or 7.8 percentage points for the period. This is a slower pace of labor market polarization than what is observed in developed countries, where, on average, the share of routine labor in employment has fallen by about 0.59 percentage points a year or almost 12 percentage points since 1995.

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