Math, asked by karinajain, 11 months ago

efgh is a parallelogram with a and b mid point of sides gh and ef respectively then show that area of afph is half the area of total efgh

Answers

Answered by Jstationat3am
0

Answer:

Given: ABCD a parallelogram in which          E,F,G,H, are mid points of AB,BC,CD,AD. 

Then to prove: ar(EFGH) = ar(ABCD) 

Construction: Draw HF parallel to AB and CD. 

Proof:  AB is parallel and equal to HF .

Therefore, ABFH is a parallelogram Since, triangle EFH and parallelogram ABFH lies on the same base HF and between same parallels AB and HF.  

Therefore, ar(EFH) = 1/2 ar (ABFH)   -(1)                        

 Now, DC is parallel and equal to HF. Therefore,DCFH is a parallelogram Since, triangle GFH and parallelogram DCFH lies on the same base HF and between same parallels DC and HF. 

Therefore, ar(GFH) = 1/2 ar (DCFH)   -(2)                         

From 1 and 2 we get,                

ar(EFH) + ar (GFH) = 1/2 ar (ABFH) + 1/2 ar (DCFH)

ar (EFGH) = 1/2 ( ar(ABFH) + ar(DCFH))               ar (EFGH) = 1/2 ( ar(ABCD)) ar (EFGH)

at (EFGH) = 1/2 ar (ABCD)                    

 proved

HOPE THIS WILL HELP...

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Step-by-step explanation:

Answered by Anonymous
0

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :-

→ ABCD is a ||gm .

→ E, F G and H are respectively the midpoints of the sides AB, BC, CD and AD of a ||gm ABCD .

▶ To Prove :-

→ ar(EFGH) = ½ ar(ABCD).

▶ Construction :-

→ Join FH , such that FH || AB || CD .

Since, FH || AB and AH || BF .

→ •°• ABFH is a ||gm .

∆EFH and ||gm ABFH are on same base FH and between the same parallel lines .

•°• ar( ∆ EFH ) = ½ ar( ||gm ABFH )............. (1) .

▶ Now,

Since, FH || CD and DH || FC .

→ •°• DCFH is a ||gm .

∆FGH and ||gm DCFH are on same base FH and between the same parallel lines .

•°• ar( ∆ FGH ) = ½ ar( ||gm DCFH )............. (2) .

▶ On adding equation (1) and (2), we get

==> ar( ∆ EFH ) + ar( ∆ FGH) = ½ ar( ||gm ABFH ) + ½ ar( ||gm DCFH ) .

==> ar( ∆ EFH ) + ar( ∆ FGH) = ½ [ ar( ||gm ABFH ) + ar( ||gm DCFH ) ] .

•°• ar(EFGH) = ½ ar(ABCD).

✔✔ Hence, it is proved ✅✅.

THANKS

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