Math, asked by adityak4m6le007, 2 months ago

Ek answer dene mein itna time kyun le rh ho..

Answer this
Let A and B be sets. Show that f : A × B → B × A such that f(a, b) = (b, a) is

bijective function.

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Answered by vaibhaviwangarwar19
1

Answer:

are pan brainly leave ka karat ahe

Answered by shreya488416
1

Step-by-step explanation:

A × B → B × A is defined as f(a, b) = (b, a). ∴ f is one-one. Now, let (b, a) ∈ B × A be any element.

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