History, asked by tarikanwar3107, 1 year ago

equality before law did not neccesarily stand for universal suffrage in europe

Answers

Answered by cyrusbishop
189

Equality before law did not  necessarily stand for universal suffrage in Europe because that  men and women are not equal. Women didn't have right to vote. Men got more facilities and justice than a woman, also which men have own property they got many rights. Workers, labours were not in equality. Equality means a person will get every rights like - political rights, social rights, income, job, property, right to vote and everything.

Answered by AfiaSarwar
44

Answer:

France, which marked  the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men.

Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights.

During the Jacobins period all adult males enjoyed suffrage.

However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands.

Throughout the nineteenth  and early twentieth centuries women and non-propertied men  organized opposition movements demanding equal political rights.

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