Question

equality before law under liberalism did not necessarily mean universal suffrage " support the given statement with an example?​

Answer 1

Answer:

Answer:1. Equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. 2. In revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men. 3. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage. 4. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands. 5. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political rights. Or any other relevant point.