Social Sciences, asked by 123401s, 1 year ago

Everyone knows that rich people can afford better lawyers. Does this violate the law of equality or equality before law?

Answers

Answered by alia20
1
no it does not violates the law before the law..yes ..but i agree that this is a case of discrimination but in court the decision is not based on caste and religion and according to the economical value of the person .do if a rich person affords a lawyer then it is not necessary that he will win the case .the court is fully based upon the evidence so it really doesn't matter that how costly is your lawyer ..everyone look at the evidences not the lawyers

123401s: Nice.
123401s: Plz help me in the question below:
123401s: Poverty is a curse upon humanity. Comment.
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