Everyone knows that rich people can afford better lawyers. Does this violate the law of equality or equality before law?
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no it does not violates the law before the law..yes ..but i agree that this is a case of discrimination but in court the decision is not based on caste and religion and according to the economical value of the person .do if a rich person affords a lawyer then it is not necessary that he will win the case .the court is fully based upon the evidence so it really doesn't matter that how costly is your lawyer ..everyone look at the evidences not the lawyers
123401s:
Nice.
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