ex- post value of total output is always equal to the ex- Post aggregate expenditure in the economy it's true or false? give reason
Answers
Answered by
5
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
They are necessarily equal and this is brought about by fluactions in Income level.
Similar questions
Math,
3 months ago
Math,
3 months ago
Economy,
6 months ago
Accountancy,
6 months ago
English,
10 months ago
Math,
10 months ago
Social Sciences,
10 months ago