Question

explain Plato's communism conclusion

​

Answer 1

Answer:

Plato’s theory of communism is just opposite to Marxian theory of communism that seeks to eventually establish a classless and hence stateless society, as according to it the state is instrument of the domination in the hands of ruling classes. Plato’s theory of communism that is used as one of instruments of consolidation of the hierarchically ‘well ordered’ state through perpetuating class-division and class-domination, the other instrument being the education. Plato’ Republic seeks to establish justice, i.e. the ideal state where the philosophers, selflessly, rule over the masses involved in the material production of the society, with the help of the armed auxiliaries. Plato’s theory of communism is based on his belief of corrupting influences of family and property over people holding the public offices that remains a historic fact and continuing norm. It is aimed at freeing the ruling classes, i.e. the philosophers and the warriors from the institutions of family and property. The vast producing masses are kept out of the realm of communism that applies to only ruling classes – the philosophers and the warriors. The longings for family and property make the rulers self-seeking, indulgent, greedy and hence corrupt that is a diversion from and impediment to appropriate performance of their duty to rule not in their own but in public interest.

Explanation:

Thanks.Please mark me as Brainliest and follow me also.

Plsssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssss

Answer 2

Answer:

Ernest Barker calls Platonic communism as half communism. “It affects less than half of the persons and less than half of the goods of the society to which it belongs.” Barker’s quantification is very generous it does not apply to even hundredth of the population. Moreover, slavery, the specific feature of the Greek glory is completely missing from the discourse. Either slavery is abolished in his Ideal State or Plato finds slavery so insignificant and taken for granted, in that was not worth reckoning. In case of the first probability, he never tells about how was it abolished and nothing happens on its own, according to the Newton’s law. His theory applies to only a parasitic (non-producers), miniscule minority of rulers, who rule over the vast majority of economic producers and traders, who in the then contemporary Athens were free and equal citizens with the right to participate in legal and juridical deliberations. If the Ideal State was to be established in the then Athens, it would have involved de-enfranchisement of the entire free male population and disbanding the families of the first band of rulers. When he talks of the unity and the purity of the state he simply means the unity of the ruling classes so that the philosopher kings could consolidate their rule over the producing masses with the help of the armed auxiliary.

please mark me as brainliest

Explanation: