Social Sciences, asked by arjitgautam8747, 5 months ago

Explain the reason for the polarization of industrially developed countries

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
7

The major explanation of job polarization is skill biased technological change (SBTC): new technologies are complementary to high paying jobs but substitute workers in routine manual jobs in the middle of the wage distribution, who relocate to low paying service jobs

Answered by sudharsansundar898
4

Answer:

Causes. Because polarization appears similar in 16 European countries as well as the U.S. it seems likely that similar forces affect these shared economic developments. ... The decline in unionization in America may increase polarization slightly. Globalization also lowers wages across the board.

Explanation:

Economists refer to the polarization of the labor force when middle-class jobs—requiring a moderate level of skills, like autoworkers’ jobs—seem to disappear relative to those at the bottom, requiring few skills, and those at the top, requiring greater skill levels.The structure of job opportunities in the United States has sharply polarized over the past two decades, with expanding job opportunities in both high-skill, high-wage occupations and low-skill, low wage occupations combined with contracting opportunities in middle-wage, middle-skill white-collar and blue-collar jobs.Although this has contributed to the rise of income inequality in the U.S. it is a minor factor compared to the relatively rapid rise in income and wealth by the top 1%.[3] Employment and economic polarization is widespread across industrialized economies; it is not a uniquely American phenomenon. Over the past decades, wage gains were also polarized, with modest gains at the extremes and smaller gains in the middleA good description of polarization in Great Britain is one of the first uses of the term, economic polarization.

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