English, asked by simranbansal22sim, 12 hours ago

Explain these lines with reference to the context. 1. In America, they have freed the language from the stifling tyranny of the passive voice. a. What does the writer mean by 'the stifling tyranny of the passive voice'?​

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Answered by krishtiwari2011070
1

Answer:

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Explanation:

throwing out the British but retaining their language and letting it flourish on American. soil; the resultant language is somewhat different from its 'British counterpart; it may be. said to have gone through a process of toasting. ... In America, they have freed the language from the stifling tyranny of the Passive Voice

Answered by jagruti2158
9

Answer:

throwing out the British but retaining their language and letting it flourish on American. soil; the resultant language is somewhat different from its 'British counterpart; it may be. said to have gone through a process of toasting. ... In America, they have freed the language from the stifling tyranny of the Passive Voice ...

Explain:

So the writer is basically saying that it's a bit suffocating and tyrannical to put a subject under such torture. ... What I was trying to say is this: The writer is saying that the passive voice is suffocatingly tyrannical as when we write, we are forcing the action of the verb onto the subject.

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