Math, asked by joshuaallen007j2005, 7 months ago

f of X equal to 1 by 1 - X then f of f of x is equal to​

Answers

Answered by ravi2303kumar
1

Answer:

1- (1/x)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given f(x) = 1/(1-x)

therefore,

f(f(x)) = 1/ (1-f(x))

        = 1 / [1- (1/(1-x))]

        = 1/ [ ( (1-x) - 1 ) / (1-x) ]

        = 1 / [ (-x) / (1-x) ]

        = (1-x) / (-x)

        = (x-1) / x

        = 1- (1/x)

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