Factorise (1+x)²(1+y²)-(1-y)²(1+x²)
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the answer is that it depends on the domain. in the integers, rational numbers and real numbers, the answer is no. However, in the complex numbers, where there is a solution to x^2+1=0, you can factor into (x-i)(x+i), where i^2=-1 (this number is no more imaginary than π).
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