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fast answer ît is important

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Answers

Answered by brunoconti
0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answered by Anonymous
1

Answer:

This follows from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

\left(\sum_{i=1}^n x_iy_i\right)^2 \leq \left(\sum_{i=1}^n x_i^2\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n y_i^2\right)\\\text{with equality if and only if there is a constant~$k$ such that $y_i=kx_i$ for all~$i$.}

In terms of vectors

|u\cdot v|^2 \leq |u|^2\,|v|^2 \ \text{with equality if and only if $v=ku$ for some constant~$k$.}

Applying this to u = ( x₁, x₂, x₃ ) = ( a, b, c ) and v = ( y₁, y₂, y₃ ) = ( b, c, a ), we have

( ab + bc + ca )² ≤ ( a² + b² + c² ) ( b² + c² + a² ) = ( a² + b² + c² )²

with equality if and only if b = ka, c = kb, a = kc for some k.  But this would mean that a = kc = k²b = k³a, so k = 1 and therefore a = b = c.

The given condition says that a² + b² + c² = ab + bc + ca, so we do have equality above.  Therefore a = b = c.

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