Math, asked by TheIMMORTAL7460, 3 months ago

find a0 of the function f(x) = 1/4 (π-x)^​

Answers

Answered by mithumahi
1

Given:

 f(x) =\frac{1}{4}(\pi -x)^{2}

a_0=\frac{1}{\pi }\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{1}{4}(\pi-x)^{2}

     = from 0 to 2\pi

      = \frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{3}\pi^{2})

      =\frac{1}{6} \pi^2

      = \frac{\pi^2}{6}

   

Answered by priyanshukumar513sl
0

Answer:

The correct answer will be =

The value of a_0 = \frac{\pi ^2}{6}.

Step-by-step explanation:

Correction in the question -

We have to find a₀ of the function f(x)  = \frac{1}{4}(\pi - x)^2

In Fourier transform a_0 corresponds to the average of f(x) in one period and it is given by -

a_0 = \frac{1}{\pi} \int\limits^\pi_{-\pi} {f(x)} \, dx

so calculating for the given function -

a_0 = \frac{1}{\pi} \int\limits^{\pi} _{-\pi} {\frac{1}{4}(\pi - x)^2} \, dx \\\\

Integrating from -π to π we will get -

a_0 = \frac{1}{4\pi} \int\limits^\pi_{-\pi} ({\pi^2+x^2-2\pi x}) \, dx \\\\a_0 = \frac{1}{4\pi} (2\pi^3+ \frac{8}{3} \pi^3 - 4\pi^3)

a_0 = \frac{1}{4\pi}(\frac{2\pi ^3}{3})\\ \\ a_0 = \frac{\pi ^2}{6}

So the value of the a_0 = \frac{\pi ^2}{6} .

#SPJ3

Similar questions