Physics, asked by gaya0087, 5 months ago

Find the efficiency of the thermodynamic cycle shown in figure for an ideal diatomic gas.​

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Answered by sapnathakral21
2

Answer:

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Answered by BrainlyTwinklingstar
51

 \Large\bf   {\orange {\underline { \underline  {Solutíon}} : -  }}

Let n be the number of moles of the gas and the temperature be  \sf T_{0}in the state A. Now, work done during the cycle

 \sf w =  \frac{1}{2}  \times ( 2V_{0} -  V_{0})( 2P_{0} -  P_{0})  =  \frac{1}{2} P_{ 0 } V_{0} \\

For the heat  \sf (∆Q_{1}) given during the process A → B, we have

 \sf  ∆Q_{1} =  ∆W_{AB} +  ∆U_{AB}

 \sf ∆W_{AB} = area \: under \: the \: straight \: line \: AB

 \sf =  \frac{1}{2} (  P_{0} + 2P_{0})( 2V_{0} -  V_{0} )   =  \frac{3P_{0} V_{0} }{2}  \\

Applying equation of state for the gas in the state A & B.

 \sf \frac{ P_{0} V_{0} }{ T_{0} }  =  \frac{( 2P_{0})( 2V_{0})  }{ T_{B} }   \Longrightarrow  T_{B} =  4T_{0}\\

 \sf \therefore U_{AB} =  nC_{v}∆T = n \bigg( \frac{5R}{2}  \bigg)( 4T_{0} -  T_{0})  \\

 \sf =  \frac{ 15nRT_{0} }{2}  =  \frac{ 15P_{0} V_{0}}{2}  \\

 \sf \therefore \:  ∆Q_{1} =  \frac{3}{2}  P_{0} V_{0} +  \frac{1}{5} P_{0} V_{0}  = 9P_{0} V_{0}  \\

Obviously, the processes B → C and ⠀⠀⠀ C → A involved the abstraction of heat from the gas .

\boxed{ \sf Efficiency =  \frac{work \: done \: per \: cycle}{total \: heat \: supplied \: per \: cycle} }

i.e.,  \sf η =  \frac{ \frac{1}{2}P_{0} V_{0} }{9P_{0} V_{0} }  =  \frac{1}{18}  \\

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