Math, asked by duetgamers890, 1 month ago

Find the value of
I)⅓ of rupees 42 what is the answer = ??​

Answers

Answered by aishwaryasriva83
0

Answer:

14 rs. is the correct answer

Answered by sandhya40gaonkar
1

Answer:

(1/3)×42

= 1×14

=₹14

Step-by-step explanation:

of means (×) multiplication

so 1/3 ×42

we will cancel 3 and 42 so it will be 14

so this is in the lowest term or in the simplest form

hope this helps you

please mark it as brainliest

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