Math, asked by dhruv0325, 10 months ago

For any set A, (A’)’ is equal to (a) A’ (b) A (c)  (d) none of these​

Answers

Answered by sahilarora199587
4

Answer:

(b) A

Step-by-step explanation:

bcoz compliment cancels each other

Answered by 16Aradhya
1

Hii dear...

here's your answer....

For any set A, (A')' is equal to... (b) A

hope it'll help you...

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