Math, asked by addepalliraju48, 8 months ago

for every rational number a ,there exists multiplication inverse . is this statement true or false . why?

Answers

Answered by vipul0704

6

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

every rational number has multiplicative inverse

Answered by Virjawaghmare17

0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

here was your ans mate

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