Math, asked by guestking90, 2 months ago

For sets S= {π,π^2,π^3} and T = {e,e^2,e^3} if f^-1 : T→S is defined as f^-1 ={(e,π^3),(e^2,π^2),(e^3,π)} then function f=​

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Answered by Anonymous
1

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here's ur anser:

We can eliminate the parameter by first solving the equation x(t)=2t+3 for t:

x(t)=2t+3x−3=2tt=x−32.

Substituting this into y(t), we obtain

y(t)=3t−4y=3(x−32)−4y=3x2−92−4y=3x2−172.

The slope of this line is given by dydx=32. Next we calculate x′(t) and y′(t). This gives x′(t)=2 and y′(t)=3. Notice that dydx=dy/dtdx/dt=32. This is no coincidence, as outlined in the following theorem.

hope it helps uh

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