Question

force is directly proportional to velocity​

Answer 1

Answer:

might be possible..

Explanation:

∆P= m∆v....( i )

∆P= ∆F x ∆t...( ii )

from i and ii ..

∆F x ∆t = m ∆v

sooo..

∆F proportion to ∆v

Answer 2

Explanation:

Yes indeed!

F= ma which is the famous formula given by Newton in his third law.

And acceleration is nothing but the rate of change of velocity.

dv/ dt= a , so

F= m dv/ dt

But the condition for the above equation is that-

• mass should be constant or

• the effective mass m * , when considered should be very close enough to the rest mass . m* is usually considered for the bodies which move at a speed comparable to the speed of light.

m * = m÷(1-((v)^2÷(c)^2 ))^0.5

In general for all bodies except for atomic particles effective mass m* is almost equal to their rest mass . Hence in general we assume mass to be a constant quantity while solving problems in physics.

However m* must be considered in a problem involving any atomic particles like electron , proton and neutron mainly…

Hence force is directly propotional to velocity…