force on 1 by 2 is equal to that of 2 by 1. is it necessary that work done on 1 by 2 is equal and opposite to work done 2 by 1
Answers
Answered by
0
the work done by 2and 1 is equal because object do not change its position and force applied by both 1and 2 is equal
Answered by
0
no not possible............
Similar questions