Social Sciences, asked by souhardikachand6425, 6 months ago

Gandhiji strongly believed that every adult in India should be given the right to vote. However, a few people don’t share his views. They feel that illiterate people, who are mainly poor, should not be given the right to vote. What do you think? Do you think this would be a form of discrimination? Give five points to support your view and share these with the class.

Answers

Answered by CarlosTheGreat
4

All citizens are equal. The constitution aims at providing all equality to all its citizens. If a person believes in that illiterate people should not be given the right to vote then he is simply being a discriminator.

   We have no right to discriminate any one on the basis of poverty.

   An illiterate is also a citizen of India. He should not be debarred from voting right on the basis of his illiteracy.

   Our constitution provides equal voting rights to all its citizens.

   As ideal citizens we all have to abide by the constitutional provisions.

We must honour human dignity and legal provisions.

Answered by godpromise1722
2

+Yes it is a type of discrimination.

+Gandhi told the poor people as Harizans or the people of God.

+To remove discrimination between higher caste and lower caste he also clean toilets.

+He believe that if this type of discrimination stay they cannot free our nation from British rule.

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