geometrical e verify the Euclid Lemma / algorithm
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Dear Student,
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Theorem
If a and b are integers and b>0, then there exist unique q and r(mathematically: ∃!q,r) such that:
a=bq+r and 0≤r<b
Proof
Define q=⌊ab⌋ and r=a−bq. Clearly a=bq+r. We must show that 0≤r<b: we know (do we? maybe it requires a proof...) that
ab−1<⌊ab⌋≤ab
If we multiply all members of the inequality by −b, which is a negative number, we get:
b−a>−b⌊ab⌋≥−a
If we now add a everywhere, and plug in ⌊ab⌋=q we get:
b>a−bq≥0
But we previously defined r=a−bqwhich implies that 0≤r<b
We therefore showed the "∃" part of the thesis, while we still miss the uniqueness (!): therefore, let us assume that there exists different values of q and r, so that
a=bq1+r1 and 0≤r1<b
and
a=bq2+r2 and 0≤r2<b
We must prove that r1=r2 and q1=q2: we can suppose that r1≠r2, let's say that r2>r1. Then
(bq1+r1)−(bq2+r2)=a−a=0
⇔b(q1−q2)+(r1−r2)=0
⇔b(q1−q2)=(r2−r1)
By definition of divisibility, b|r2−r1 and therefore b≤r2−r1, but since we assumed that b>r2>r1≥0 we have a contradiction, and this tells us that r1=r2.
Finally, we also have that b(q1−q2)=0, and since we know that b≠0, we also conclude that q1=q2, and this completes the proof
.........................................................................
kindly mark as brainilest answer
.................................
HOPE THIS ANSWER HELPS YOU A LOT DEAR......
..................................
.......................
Theorem
If a and b are integers and b>0, then there exist unique q and r(mathematically: ∃!q,r) such that:
a=bq+r and 0≤r<b
Proof
Define q=⌊ab⌋ and r=a−bq. Clearly a=bq+r. We must show that 0≤r<b: we know (do we? maybe it requires a proof...) that
ab−1<⌊ab⌋≤ab
If we multiply all members of the inequality by −b, which is a negative number, we get:
b−a>−b⌊ab⌋≥−a
If we now add a everywhere, and plug in ⌊ab⌋=q we get:
b>a−bq≥0
But we previously defined r=a−bqwhich implies that 0≤r<b
We therefore showed the "∃" part of the thesis, while we still miss the uniqueness (!): therefore, let us assume that there exists different values of q and r, so that
a=bq1+r1 and 0≤r1<b
and
a=bq2+r2 and 0≤r2<b
We must prove that r1=r2 and q1=q2: we can suppose that r1≠r2, let's say that r2>r1. Then
(bq1+r1)−(bq2+r2)=a−a=0
⇔b(q1−q2)+(r1−r2)=0
⇔b(q1−q2)=(r2−r1)
By definition of divisibility, b|r2−r1 and therefore b≤r2−r1, but since we assumed that b>r2>r1≥0 we have a contradiction, and this tells us that r1=r2.
Finally, we also have that b(q1−q2)=0, and since we know that b≠0, we also conclude that q1=q2, and this completes the proof
.........................................................................
kindly mark as brainilest answer
.................................
HOPE THIS ANSWER HELPS YOU A LOT DEAR......
krishnasolanki21:
there are there
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