Physics, asked by Anonymous, 1 year ago

ℏḙℓℓ✺ Պᾰтḙṧ !!


...give full explanation...

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Answered by Dhivyadelphi
11

hi pal that is the answer excuse me for my handwriting...

hope it helps

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rohitkumargupta: Thanks for your answer, but please try to write atleast 50+ words in editor box
Answered by Anonymous
24

Answer-

  i_{2} -  i_{1} = 4 {m}^{2}

Explanation-

.. as the mass is uniformly distributed on the disc,

so,

mass \: density =  \frac{9m}{\pi {r}^{2} }

and, mass of removed portion=

 \frac{9m\pi}{\pi {r}^{2} }  \times  \frac{r}{3}  {}^{2}  = m

so, the moment of inertia of the removed portion about the stated axis by theorem of parallel axes is,

 i_{1} =  \frac{m}{2}  \times  \frac{r}{3}  {}^{2}  + m \frac{2r}{3} {}^{2}   =   \frac{ {m}^{2} }{2} ........(i)

the moment of inertia of the original complete disc about the stated axis is,

 i_{2} \: then \:  \:  i_2 = 9m \times \frac{ {r}^{2} }{2}  ........(ii)

so, the moment of inertia of the left over disc is

 i_{2} -  i_{1}

i. e.

 i_{2} -  i_{1} = 4m {r}^{2}

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