Math, asked by haghshshs, 11 months ago

give me answer fast please help me

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Answered by mamun59
0
It is very simple......
With√1-sinA/1+sinA multiply 1-sinA
So you will get √(1-sinA)^2 / cos^2A... As both numerator and denominator is in the form of square so it will be cancelled with the whole root
Now u r left with 1-sinA/cosA
Separate them and solve the individual fraction
1/cosA - sinA/cosA
SecA - tanA (sinA/cosA = tan A)

(Hence proved)
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