Question

Give the right answer. with explanation If you can't answer my question then don't Ruin it.please​

Answer 1

Answer:

As we know that , xn – an is exactly divisible by (x – a) if n is odd. ∴ (49)15 – (1 )15 is exactly divisible by 49 – 1 = 48, that is a multiple of 8.

Answer 2

Answer:

${(49)}^{15} - {(1)}^{15}\: is \: exactly \: divisible \: \\ by \:8$

Step-by-step explanation:

$as \: we \: know \: that, \: \\ {x}^{n} - {a}^{n} \: is \: exactly \: divisible \: by \\ (x - a) \\ ∴  {(49)}^{15} - {(1)}^{15}\: is \: exactly \: divisible \: \\ by \: 49 - 1 = 48 \\ that \: is \: a \: multiple \: of \: 8. \\ hence \: required \: answer \: is \: 8$

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