Math, asked by lkemp2578, 10 months ago

given that £1 =$1.62 what would be £650 =$

Answers

Answered by luckyjoshi615

2

Multiply 650 by 1.62 and get your answer.

The answer will be $1053

Answered by Yashchampion

5

we will multiply 1.62 to 650 = 1.62*650= 1053

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Physics, 5 months ago

please answer fast fast...

Computer Science, 5 months ago

Predict the output: (1 mark) Odd = [1 , 3 , 5] Print ( Odd + [ 2 , 4 , 6]) [4]) Print(Odd + [ 12 , 14 , 16 ] ) [4] – (Odd + [ 2 , 4 , 6 ])...

Environmental Sciences, 5 months ago

e) What are the five main types of pollution? Mention the various sources of water pollution...

Hindi, 10 months ago

भाषा के संचित कोष को क्या कहा जाता है?? please tell...

Math, 10 months ago

Add the following rational numbers :. I) 31/-4 and -5/8...

Hindi, 1 year ago

बैंक की नई शाखा खुलने पर विज्ञापन...

Math, 1 year ago

The average of the first 9prime numbers is...

Physics, 1 year ago

A car starts rest and acquires a velocity of 54km/h in 2minutes.assuming the motion of the car to be uniform find acceleration, distance travelled by during this time...