Math, asked by Anonymous, 17 days ago

guys can you please help me​

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Answered by ss7870381546
0

n^(p-q)(p+q)× n(q-r)(q+r)×n(r-p)(r+p)

n^(p-q)(p+q)+(q-r)(q+r)+(r-p)(r+p)

n^°

1

Hence n= 1

Answered by cls817
4

Answer:

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