Guys I have a small doubt. In a problem, where a mixed fraction is divided by an whole no, and the answer is a proper fraction, do i have to simplify it into a mixed? 'Cause that isn't possible?
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Answer:
No
Step-by-step explanation:
If it is already a proper fraction you won't need to convert it into Mixed fraction. If you convert then the whole number will be 0 which logically and mathematical makes no sense when converting back.
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