Math, asked by snehakujur2005, 4 months ago

guys please help me with this question and whoever will give me the answer I will mark them as brainliest but I don't want useless answers​

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Answers

Answered by devilknight15
1

Answer:

a) 1/2

b) 1/2

c) 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

a) odd number: 10

total balls:20

probability: 10/20 = 1/2

b) divisible by 2: 10

total balls: 20

probability: 10/20 =1/2

c) prime number: 8

total balls:20

probability: 8/20 = 4/10 = 2/5

HOPE YOU MARK ME AS BRAINLIST ❤☺

Answered by abhisheksinghr81
0

Answer:

2.)=In this question,

(a)=(i)=P=1/

=(ii)=P=1/2

=(iii)=P=2/5

(b.)=Here, After factorisation, 2numbers upto 2decimal places are 3.73 and 0.73

(c)=In this question, (cosecA-sinA) (secA-cosA) sec^2A=tanA.

Step-by-step explanation:

2.)=(a.)=Here, As per our given question,

=(i)=Total numbers of balls in the box =20

And we have to find out probability for odd numbers,

So, Total Odd numbers between1-20=10

=(1,3,5,7,9,11,13,15,17,19)

So, Probability =10/20=1/2

(ii)=Now, we have to find out probability for numbers divisible by 2,

=Total numbers divisible by 2 between 1-20=10 =(2,4,6,8,10,12,14,16,18,20)

So, probabilty=10/20=/12

(iii)=Now, we have to find out probability for prime numbers,

=Total prime numbers between 1-20=8 =(2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19)

So, probability=8/20=2/5 (Answer).

(b.)=As given in this question,

=p(x)=x^2-4x+1=0

So, For soving the given equation for 2 decimal places, we have formula:=[-root(b^2-4ac)]/2a

Here, a=1,b=(-4),c=1

Now, [-(-4)±root(-4^2-4×1×1)/]/2×1

=[4±root(16-4)]/2

=[4±root(12)]/2

So Now,=[4±(2×1.73)]/2 (By doing square of root12, we get 2root3 and value of root3 is 1.732)

So,=(4+3.46)/2 , =(4-3.46)/2

=7.46/2 , =1.46/2

=3.73 , =0.73

So, Here the numbers upto 2 decimal places after factorisation are=(3.73) and (0.73).

(c)=As given in question,

=(cosecA-sinA) (secA-cosA) sec^2A=tanA

So, At first we would solve LHS,

=(1/sinA-sinA) (1/cosA-cosA) sec^2A=LHS (CosecA=1/sinA, SecA=1/cosA)

After taking Lcm and solving it, we get,

=[(1-sin^2A)/sinA] [(1-cos^2A)/cosA] sec^2A

=(cos^2A/sinA) (sin^2A/cosA) sec^2A (As cos^2A+sin^2A=1)

After multiplication and cancellation of divisibles, we get,

=cosA×sinA×1/cos^2A

=sinA/cosA (As cosA divides cos^2A)

=TanA (sinA/cosA=tanA)

Hence, Proved.

Thank you.

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