Math, asked by ShrutiJha03, 1 year ago

Hello everyone....!!!.❤(ӦvӦ。)

✨I Need Your Help...!!♥️♥️

First And Best Answer Will Be Brainliest...ʕ•ٹ•ʔ

Attachments:

nishitadeka: get lost
nishitadeka: thanks shruti
nishitadeka: really he had lost his mind

Answers

Answered by nishitadeka
4
hey.....here is your answer.....
hope it will help you
Attachments:

VemugantiRahul: no
VemugantiRahul: by shruthi
VemugantiRahul: °_°``
VemugantiRahul: got it!
nishitadeka: thankx
Answered by Anonymous
0
Let us assume that √3 is a rational number.

That is, we can find integers a and b (≠ 0) such that √3 = (a/b)

Suppose a and b have a common factor other than 1, then we can divide by the common factor, and assume that a and b are coprime.

√3b = a

⇒ 3b2=a2 (Squaring on both sides) → (1)

Therefore, a2 is divisible by 3

Hence ‘a’ is also divisible by 3.

So, we can write a = 3c for some integer c.

Equation (1) becomes,

3b2 =(3c)2

⇒ 3b2 = 9c2

∴ b2 = 3c2

This means that b2 is divisible by 3, and so b is also divisible by 3.

Therefore, a and b have at least 3 as a common factor.

But this contradicts the fact that a and b are co prime.

This contradiction has arisen because of our incorrect assumption that √3 is rational.
So, we conclude that √3 is irrational.

HOPE IT HELPS YOU!!!

Similar questions