Biology, asked by shreyabtsgmdc, 11 months ago

Help me please. iF anyone knows!
please only right answer.

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Answered by narayana77

Answer:1/2 is the right answer

Explanation:The simple answer is that the two events are independent, and there's a 50% chance of a male each time. The addendum to that is that slightly more males are born, for various reasons, and thus there's a slightly greater chance of this second child being a male

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Answered by Anonymous

Answer:

option 2

Explanation:

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