Question

help me with this question​

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry I don't know how to do this

Answer 2

Answer:

PROVED BELOW..

Step-by-step explanation:

L.H.S.

Let (1/2)cos^-1(a/b) = A

=tan(pi/4+A)+tan(pi/4-A)

=sin(pi/4+A)/cos(pi/4+A)+sin(pi/4-A)/cos(pi/4-A).

=[sin(pi/4+A).cos(pi/4-A)+sin(pi/4-A).cos(pi/4+A)]/cos(pi/4+A).cos(pi/4-A)

=2[sin(pi/4+A+p/4-A)]/2.cos(pi/4+A).cos(pi/4-A)

=2.[sin pi/2]/[cos(pi/4+A+pi/4-A)+cos(pi/4+A-pi/4+A)].

=2(1)/[cospi/2+cos2A].

=2./[0+cos2A].

=2./cos2A

On putting A =(1/2)cos^-1(a/b)

=2./cos 2×(1/2) cos^-1(a/b).

=2./(a/b)

=2.b/a

HENCE PROVED

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