Math, asked by faithlee777, 5 months ago

hey!! could an intelligent legend please explain to me how

a^2(b-a)+b^2(a-b)

could be rewritten as...

(b-a)a^2-(b-a)b^2

thank youu :)

Answers

Answered by xosofo6204
1

Answer:

we have a property in maths that (x-y)z = xz - yz = (xz -yz ) * 1= (xz -yz ) * (-1) * (-1)  = (x-y) * z * (-1) * (-1) = (x-y) * (-1) * z * (-1) = (y-x) * (-z )

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps!

Substitute the answer

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