hey!! could an intelligent legend please explain to me how
a^2(b-a)+b^2(a-b)
could be rewritten as...
(b-a)a^2-(b-a)b^2
thank youu :)
Answers
Answered by
1
Answer:
we have a property in maths that (x-y)z = xz - yz = (xz -yz ) * 1= (xz -yz ) * (-1) * (-1) = (x-y) * z * (-1) * (-1) = (x-y) * (-1) * z * (-1) = (y-x) * (-z )
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope it helps!
Substitute the answer
Similar questions
India Languages,
2 months ago
Math,
2 months ago
Physics,
2 months ago
Math,
5 months ago
India Languages,
5 months ago
English,
11 months ago