Question

hey I have a question. btw ik how to derive v=rw. but as we know this two theorems a=v²/r and a=rw² they are related to. irucpar motion by making them equal we can get v=rw as well idm if it's valid or not.​

Answer 1

Answer:

Consider a body rotating about an axis passing through a point Oand perpendicular to the plane of the paper. Let P be the position of a particle inside the body. If the body rotates through an angle 0 in a time interval of t, the particle at P reaches P

′

∴ Linear displacement PP

′

=rθ

∴Linear velocity, v=

t

PP

′

=

t

rθ

But

t

θ

=ω, the angular velocity

∴Linear velocity , v=rω