Math, asked by Anonymous, 11 months ago

Heya Guyzz.....

Can anyone answer it for mee???

It would be a gr8 help..❤​

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Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

Step-by-step explanation:

Since ΔABQ and ΔPBQ lie on the same base BQ and are between the same parallels AP and BQ,

∴ Area (ΔABQ) = Area (ΔPBQ) …......... (i)

Again, ΔBCQ and ΔBRQ lie on the same base BQ and are between the same parallels BQ and CR.

∴ Area (ΔBCQ) = Area (ΔBRQ) …........ (ii)

On adding equations (i) and (ii), we obtain

Area (ΔABQ) + Area (ΔBCQ) = Area (ΔPBQ) + Area (ΔBRQ)

⇒ Area (ΔAQC) = Area (ΔPBR).

I hope it is helpful for u

Answered by Anonymous
3

Answer:

we know that triangles which are on same base and among the same parallels are equal in area

similarly.

ar. ∆AQB = ∆PBQ.....1

lly

ar.∆BQC = ∆QBR......2

adding 1 and 2

ar.∆AQC=∆PBR

hence proved.

sry ,I didn't thought that u can write that by mistake

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