Math, asked by thakurds456, 10 months ago

Hi frinds plese solve my question ​

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Answers

Answered by UniqueBrain16
2

Answer:

I think yes, Let's take 6 and 4 for example.

6 and 4 are divisible by 2.

Now the difference between 6 and 4 is 2.

Yes, their difference is divisible by that number.

And hence proved.

Hope it helps u

Answered by benargi10
1

Answer:

Let the two numbers be x,y and consider these two numbers be divisible by the number z then

As per the question,

Let x/z =K1, y/z= K2 and given difference of x and y is divisible by z so x-y/z =K3.........(1)

x/z=k1 so x=zk1 and y/z=k2 so y=zK3

Substituting x and y values in eq(1)

zK1-zk2/z=K3

z(K1-k2)/z=K3

Therefore,K1-K2=K3

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