Hi frinds plese solve my question
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2
Answer:
I think yes, Let's take 6 and 4 for example.
6 and 4 are divisible by 2.
Now the difference between 6 and 4 is 2.
Yes, their difference is divisible by that number.
And hence proved.
Hope it helps u
Answered by
1
Answer:
Let the two numbers be x,y and consider these two numbers be divisible by the number z then
As per the question,
Let x/z =K1, y/z= K2 and given difference of x and y is divisible by z so x-y/z =K3.........(1)
x/z=k1 so x=zk1 and y/z=k2 so y=zK3
Substituting x and y values in eq(1)
zK1-zk2/z=K3
z(K1-k2)/z=K3
Therefore,K1-K2=K3
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