Math, asked by honeyhoney200230, 11 months ago

hi guys
can you please send me the answer plzzz​

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Answers

Answered by niral
1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

using PMI to prove.

Putting n =1

49+16-1=64 (which is obviously divisible by 64.

Hence the expression is valid for n=1

So the expression will be valid for n=k

(m be any natural no.) ------------(1)

Now to prove that the expression is valid for any value of n,we need to prove that the expression is valid for n=k+1 also.

To prove:

b is any natural number.


honeyhoney200230: sax means i can't understand say in full from plz
honeyhoney200230: what
honeyhoney200230: no
niral: thanks.
honeyhoney200230: :)
honeyhoney200230: hiii
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