Math, asked by kiara9514, 8 months ago

hlo guys hru all✌️









don't post irrelevant answers



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Answered by SERLEA
3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the king's rule.

∫f(x)dx=∫f(a+b-x)dx

Where the integral if from a to b.

With that

We will get

∫⁴₂ [√(ln(9—x)+√ln(x+3)]/[√ln(9-x)+√ln(x+3)]dx

Where the integral is from 0 to 1

All will can and

We will have

∫⁴₂dx

=[x]⁴₂=4-2=2

Answered by shrutichavan65540
1

Answer:

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