Question

How can a spinor represent an “epistemic” state?

Answer 1

I  have read a lot of stuff on the seemingly endless debate on ontology/epistemology of the quantum state ψψ. But I always wonder: how can a spinor be considered epistemic when ψψ really becomes the negative of itself after a 2π2π turn? It is a measurable effect in interference experiments, so surely not just "in our heads"! How can one reconcile these facts with the ψψ-epistemic interpretation

Answer 2

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✔️✔️can a spinor represent an “epistemic” state

when ψψ really becomes the negative of itself after a 2π2π turn

It is a measurable effect in interference experiments, so surely not just "in our heads"! How can one reconcile these facts with the ψψ-epistemic interpretation

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