World Languages, asked by devenmojawat070, 1 year ago

how can i prove this?​

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by pruthvinranjith
0

Answer:

he approximation is given as  

e

x

=

1

+

x

+

x

2

2

.

The function is given as:

f

(

x

)

=

e

x

It can be expanded as:

f

(

x

)

=

f

(

a

)

+

f

(

a

)

x

+

f

′′

(

a

)

2

!

x

2

+

.

.

.

f

n

(

a

)

n

!

x

n

Calculating for  

a

=

0

:

f

(

x

)

=

f

(

0

)

+

f

(

0

)

x

+

f

′′

(

0

)

2

!

x

2

+

.

.

.

f

n

(

0

)

n

!

x

n

f

(

x

)

=

e

0

+

e

0

x

+

1

2

e

0

x

2

+

R

2

(

x

)

f

(

x

)

=

1

+

x

+

x

2

2

+

R

2

(

x

)

Here  

R

2

(

x

)

is the remainder.

Recall the Taylor Inequality:

|

R

n

(

x

)

|

M

|

x

a

|

n

+

1

(

n

+

1

)

!

Here  

M

is the maximum value at  

x

=

1

4

,  

n

is the order.

Substitute 2 for  

n

, 0 for  

a

as series is centered at 0 and  

e

0.1

for  

M

in the above inequality:

|

R

3

(

x

)

|

e

1

/

4

|

0.1

0

|

2

+

1

(

2

+

1

)

!

1.284

×

0.1

3

3

!

2.14

×

10

4

Thus, the maximum error is  

2.14

×

10

4

when  

x

<

1

4

.

Explanation:

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